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Enumerations

helmut_meukel 🚫

For all here who didn't know, English isn't my first language.
If I had to enumerate some facts I would use ordinals e.g.
first ...;
second ...;
I can understand that some people prefer cardinals instead (one; two; ...).
However today I read this:

"[...] don't worry about that, one it is not your fault you have [...], and second there is probably nothing to [...]"

My question: Do people commonly mix cardinals and ordinals when talking?
Is this similar to the "me/I" problem where more people speak – and write – grammatically incorrect than grammatically correct?

Curious,
HM.

Grant 🚫

@helmut_meukel

My question: Do people commonly mix cardinals and ordinals when talking?

It would depend very much on the country, and within the country the state/county along with education level. And whether or not English is their first, second or even third language.

awnlee jawking 🚫

@helmut_meukel

My question: Do people commonly mix cardinals and ordinals when talking?

Not that I'm aware of. If I started with a cardinal I'd continue with a cardinal and vice versa.

I have been known to use firstly, secondly etc for extra emphasis.

(I have a vague feeling that cardinal/ordinal might be context dependent, depending on whether the list is ordered or not.)

AJ

Remus2 🚫
Updated:

@helmut_meukel

The various guides do not agree on that subject. I was taught it was one through nine to be spelled out (first, second, third, fourth etc), but every number after that, 10, 11, 12, etc. or 10th, 11th, 12th etc.

As demonstrated by Richard, not every English native even knows the difference between ordinal and cardinal. It's been my observation that those who are non-native English in origin are more aware of it than those who use English as their first language.

A more direct answer would be yes, it's very often mixed.

Ernest Bywater 🚫

@helmut_meukel

In my writing I tend to use firstly, secondly, etc. as dialogue options, while using 1, 2, 3, 4, etc. and a, b, c, d, etc. as lists and fist, second, third, as narrative for where I'm listing hings but not using separate lines.

I was taught you use the words for all numbers under 100, unless they're part of a pronoun like 82nd Airborne and all numbers in dialogue are in words so you have: Fred said, "It cost me one thousand, six hundred and twenty dollars." While the narrative would have: Fred paid Jim the $1,6,20.00.

Replies:   redthumb
redthumb 🚫

@Ernest Bywater

I was taught you use the words for all numbers under 100

Agree with the following exception. If the sentence starts with a number, it was to be spelled out. The difference maybe because of where EB and I were taught as I was taught in the US.

Quasirandom 🚫

@helmut_meukel

Is this similar to the "me/I" problem where more people speak – and write – grammatically incorrect than grammatically correct?

This.

Switch Blayde 🚫

@helmut_meukel

Do people commonly mix cardinals and ordinals when talking?

At first, I thought no. But when I read the dialogue and tried to "hear" the person speak, I changed my mind. But I don't think it would be spoken as one sentence. I would think the dialogue would be:

"Don't worry about that. One, it's not your fault you have [...]. And, second, there is probably nothing to [...]"

I believe we have our characters speaking better grammar than people actually speak.

Replies:   Quasirandom
Quasirandom 🚫

@Switch Blayde

I believe we have our characters speaking better grammar than people actually speak.

We do. Actual dialogue is hard to reproduce, and transcriptions read awkwardly. Real people er/um/uh much more than fictions ones.

Fiction doesn't use accuracy, it uses verisimilitude.

(Deletes sidetrack into fiction as an act of rhetoric.)

Ernest Bywater 🚫

@helmut_meukel

Is this similar to the "me/I" problem where more people speak – and write – grammatically incorrect than grammatically correct?

There is damn little that is grammatically correct and incorrect in the English language as there are several valid variants of how English is spoken and written. This is due to the heritage of the English language being comprised of the inclusion and adaption of the over a dozen other languages and how those languages were used. The most well known language included from the various invaders as Brit, Pict, Celtic / Druidic (more cultural than language), Roman Latin, Anglic, Saxon, Juts, (these three were Germanic language variants), French, a number of Norse variants via the Vikings and other Norse invaders, French, and later Norman French, as well as Greek via a number of sources and Spanish. Bits and pieces from other languages were also adopted in later centuries.

Over the centuries some rules were adopted and in the last 200 years academics have introduced more rules in an attempt to make the use of the language and understanding it more uniform. The result is there are a number of variants of English before you even start to look and the country introduced variants.

1. Formal English which includes Business English, Academic English, Political English, and Governmental English - yes there are minor variations between them and even within them.

2. Informal English which includes way too many variants to list them all here with the most common known being colloquial and slang.

How you write in Academic works is very different to how you write a business letter and extremely different to colloquial English. Colloquial is the most recommended for writing fiction.

Years ago I spent some time with a number of English professors at an Australian university and they all said they would never read a novel written by an English professor as the overly stiff formal English would make it very difficult to understand.

Replies:   Michael Loucks
Michael Loucks 🚫
Updated:

@Ernest Bywater

It's also the case that English has, over the thousand or so years that it has existed, ditched declination except for pronouns (and plurals). It's no surprise that pronoun declination is an area of difference. 'Whom' has largely disappeared (the object form of 'who'), and more and more speakers say things such as 'Billy and me went to the store'.

That sentence is perfectly intelligible and conveys the exact same meaning as the 'gramatically correct' version—'Billy and I went to the store'.

Smilarly, it's extremely common to hear sentences such as 'He gave it to John and I'. Again, it's clear and intelligible, and conveys the same ideas as 'He gave it to John and me'.

In a hundred years, we may be at a point where we've discarded declination of pronouns in normal, everyday speech. The question then becomes 'what is gramatically correct?'

As an author, I distinguish between prose and dialogue, and in dialogue, I'll sometimes use colloquial speech, even if it's incorrect, because that's how people speak. I wouldn't do it in prose.

Switch Blayde 🚫

@Michael Loucks

more and more speakers say things such as 'Billy and me went to the store'.

Probably "Me and Billy went…"

Replies:   Michael Loucks
Michael Loucks 🚫
Updated:

@Switch Blayde

Probably "Me and Billy went…"

I was actually quoting John McWhorter's example from his Lexicon Valley podcast. It's well worth the 30 minutes every two weeks, and listening to his back catalogue is highly recommended!*

*Assuming you can deal with his fetish for show tunes!

Switch Blayde 🚫

@Michael Loucks

'He gave it to John and I'

That's like scratching fingernails on a blackboard to me.

Replies:   Michael Loucks
Michael Loucks 🚫

@Switch Blayde

That's like scratching fingernails on a blackboard to me.

There are many neologisms and grammar changes that do that to me. The one that really stands out for me is the missing Oxford comma, as I'm fastidious about it!

Replies:   DBActive
DBActive 🚫

@Michael Loucks

oncentrate on grammar and spelling and force the actual rules on all schools. This forces publishers of text books for school usage to use the rules or their books get banned from school usage.
Government agencies have to use correct grammar and spelling.
actual German orthography reform

The one that bothers me is the disappearance of -ly adverbs. My guess that was driven by advice from teachers who claim that -ly adverbs make the text "weak" and should be eliminated.

Replies:   Michael Loucks  Grant
Michael Loucks 🚫

@DBActive

The one that bothers me is the disappearance of -ly adverbs. My guess that was driven by advice from teachers who claim that -ly adverbs make the text "weak" and should be eliminated.

I've seen that 'advice' in writing tools and turn it off if at all possible. It's BS.

Grey Wolf 🚫

@Michael Loucks

I leave it on, because my default writing style overuses -ly adverbs. Having them called out so I can look at them and rethink whether I needed one where I had it makes sense. But many of them will stay upon consideration.

It's like most things (passive voice is another one I check): overuse really isn't good, but trying to entirely or even mostly remove things is also not good.

Replies:   Switch Blayde
Switch Blayde 🚫
Updated:

@Grey Wolf

my default writing style overuses -ly adverbs. Having them called out so I can look at them and rethink whether I needed one where I had it makes sense.

That statement needs a "like" or "thumbs up." That's the whole point.

Stephen King says "The road to hell is paved with adverbs" yet he uses them in his novels. It's not the adverb that's bad, often it's the reason you need the adverb. If the tool flags them, don't turn it off. Use the flagging to determine if you can write it differently without the adverb. Maybe you can't or shouldn't. But you should analyze it.

Verbs bring a story to life. "Ran" is a much weaker (boring) verb than, say, "sprinted" or "dashed" or "bolted." So if the tool flags the adverb attached to a verb, look at the verb. If it's a weak verb like "ran," change the verb and get rid of the adverb. The sentence will be stronger.

If the tool flags an adverb attached to a dialogue tag, like "he said, angrily," show the character's anger and get rid of the adverb. Not only is it more engaging to the reader, but when you use the adverb the reader is told the character spoke in anger — after the fact. But if you show the character's anger, the reader hears the anger in the words spoken. Again, it's much more engaging.

Replies:   awnlee jawking  DBActive
awnlee jawking 🚫

@Switch Blayde

Verbs bring a story to life

Verbs are just names for actions. So anything applying to verbs should also apply to nouns. But so-called 'writing experts' treat them completely differently, citing unmeasurable qualities like 'strength' and 'engagement'.

I prefer a more scientific approach.

AJ

Replies:   Switch Blayde
Switch Blayde 🚫
Updated:

@awnlee jawking

Verbs are just names for actions.

That's the point. Action brings a story to life and verbs are action.

Adjectives enhance nouns. So it might be better to use the noun "giant" rather than the adjective/noun combo "tall man." The former's description is more impactful.

Dominions Son 🚫

@Switch Blayde

So it might be better to use the noun "giant" rather than the adjective/noun combo "tall man." The former's description is more impactful.

That would be dependent on how tall the man was supposed to be. Personally I would not describe anyone under 7 foot as giant.

Replies:   Switch Blayde
Switch Blayde 🚫

@Dominions Son

Personally I would not describe anyone under 7 foot as giant.

That's a literal definition. A 5-yo boy might look up at a 6' man and call him a giant.

Replies:   Dominions Son
Dominions Son 🚫

@Switch Blayde

A 5-yo boy might look up at a 6' man and call him a giant.

If he has a lot of 6' adults in his life, probably not.

awnlee jawking 🚫

@Switch Blayde

That's the point. Action brings a story to life and verbs are action.

Therefore nouns must also bring a story to life. I can't imagine a story without nouns.

Adjectives enhance nouns. So it might be better to use the noun "giant" rather than the adjective/noun combo "tall man."

I don't understand that. If adjectives are effective at enhancing nouns, why is an unenhanced noun 'more impactful'?

All very unscientific IMO :-(

AJ

Replies:   Switch Blayde
Switch Blayde 🚫

@awnlee jawking

If adjectives are effective at enhancing nouns, why is an unenhanced noun 'more impactful'?

Same as "dashed" vs "ran quickly" for adverb/verb combo.

"Giant" vs "tall man" has a more impactful noun. It's the reason metaphors are impactful.

Whoever said creative writing was scientific?

Dominions Son 🚫
Updated:

@Switch Blayde

"Giant" vs "tall man" has a more impactful noun.

It's more impactful because it implies a greater degree of tallness. Whether absolute or relative, giant implies something more extreme than just tall.

There will be vastly more cases where giant is simply not appropriate than where giant is an appropriate substitution for tall.

Try considering gigantic as an adjective vs giant as a noun rather than tall vs giant. Is there significant difference in impact between gigantic man and giant?

Replies:   Switch Blayde
Switch Blayde 🚫

@Dominions Son

It's more impactful because it implies a greater degree of tallness.

It's more impactful because of imagery. As I said, like metaphors are more impactful.

To make fiction literal is to make it dull.

Replies:   Dominions Son
Dominions Son 🚫

@Switch Blayde

To make fiction literal is to make it dull.

As I said, it's about degree not metaphor vs literal.

Using an overly extreme metaphor is not an improvement.

Replies:   richardshagrin
richardshagrin 🚫

@Dominions Son

Using an overly extreme metaphor is not an improvement.

Is metafive an improvement to metaphor? It is 25% more. (meta 5 compared to meta 4.}

awnlee jawking 🚫

@Switch Blayde

Whoever said creative writing was scientific?

That's basically my issue. We all learn to speak, we can all recount real or imaginary events as stories, but current 'rules' beyond that seem to be primarily a matter of taste.

If you follow all the current rules, it will probably mildly enhance your prospects of getting published now, but it could also date your work (especially the metaphors) and make it your work less popular when trends change.

I prefer to apply scientific principles, or as close as I can approximate.

AJ

Replies:   Switch Blayde
Switch Blayde 🚫
Updated:

@awnlee jawking

make it your work less popular when trends change.

I've used this example many times. One of my wife's masters is in English Literature and Creative Writing. During that program she read all the classics and enjoyed most of them. Recently, she decided to re-read "Madam Bovary." She stopped reading it. She said the writing was stilted.

The way authors write today is different than back then. Her reading tastes changed with it. Will she enjoy what she's reading today some time in the future? Who knows? Who cares? She's enjoying it now.

The reason publishers look for certain things is because that's what sells. It sells because that's what readers want. When readers want something else, the "rules" will change.

DBActive 🚫

@Switch Blayde

The problem isn't finding a better verb to convey the thought. The problem is that people just substitute an adjective for the adverb. I see and hear it all the time.

richardshagrin 🚫

@Michael Loucks

teachers who claim that -ly adverbs make the text "weak"

They claim that weekly and weakly.

Replies:   awnlee jawking  madnige
awnlee jawking 🚫

@richardshagrin

They claim that weekly and weakly.

They state it teacherly ;-)

AJ

madnige 🚫

@richardshagrin

They claim that weekly and weakly

That reminds me of the three ages of Man: tri-weekly, try weekly, and try weakly.

Grant 🚫

@DBActive

My guess that was driven by advice from teachers who claim that -ly adverbs make the text "weak" and should be eliminated.

Have they ever explained how making it easier to understand, makes it weak?

Replies:   LupusDei
LupusDei 🚫

@Grant

As I understand the philosophy of that advice, the need for expansion may suggest there's possibly a better suited verb or phrase may exist. Or may not, but one is encouraged to rethink it and/or go for word hunt. Or something like that.

Also, it may be considered to be tellingly talking, instead of showingly writing, e.g. one might be rather supposed to convey the nuance in describing action rather than merely claiming it's there to taken on trust from the narrator.

Both of those interpretations may also invite unnecessary additional complexity if taken as gospel, i could imagine.

But what I know, I don't speak English.

Replies:   Uther Pendragon
Uther Pendragon 🚫

@LupusDei

I think the point, with both adjectives and adverbs is to try to find a more accurate noun or verb. The alternative for "unmarried man" is not "man" but "bachelor."

awnlee jawking 🚫

@Uther Pendragon

I think the point, with both adjectives and adverbs is to try to find a more accurate noun or verb.

Then you run into the 'writing experts' who claim the only acceptable dialogue verb is 'said'.

AJ

helmut_meukel 🚫

@Uther Pendragon

is to try to find a more accurate noun or verb. The alternative for "unmarried man" is not "man" but "bachelor."

Hmm,

Noun
bachelor (plural bachelors)

1. A person, especially a man, who is socially regarded as able to marry, but has not yet.
2. The first or lowest academical degree conferred by universities and colleges; a bachelor's degree.
3. Someone who has achieved a bachelor's degree.
4. (Canada) A bachelor apartment.
5. (obsolete) An unmarried woman.
6. (obsolete) A knight who had no standard of his own, but fought under the standard of another in the field.
7. (obsolete) Among London tradesmen, a junior member not yet admitted to wear the livery.
8. A kind of bass, an edible freshwater fish (Pomoxis annularis) of the southern United States.

With this, "unmarried man" is probably more accurate. ;-)

HM.

Replies:   richardshagrin
richardshagrin 🚫

@helmut_meukel

An unmarried woman

"What is a female bachelor called?
Bachelorette (/ˌbætʃələˈrɛt/) is a term used in American English for a single, unmarried woman. The term is derived from the word bachelor, and is often used by journalists, editors of popular magazines, and some individuals. ... In older English, the female counterpart term to "bachelor" was "spinster".

However, "1 : a woman whose occupation is to spin. 2a archaic : an unmarried woman of gentle family. b : an unmarried woman and especially one past the common age for marrying. 3 : a woman who seems unlikely to marry."

Replies:   helmut_meukel
helmut_meukel 🚫

@richardshagrin

In older English, the female counterpart term to "bachelor" was "spinster"

Hmm, 'spinster' is often used derogatorily, like 'old maid'.
As you cited 'bachelorette' is American English only,
however there is a – dated – general English term:

bacheloress (plural bacheloresses)

(dated) A female bachelor.

HM.

Vincent Berg 🚫

@helmut_meukel

As Ernest suggested, they're both 'correct' as there are no hard and fast rules concerning ordinals, and generally, they vary by context. First, "firstly" is overly formal and is rarely used in normal dialogue, so either "first"/"first of all" or "one" would be used. However any version of "first" usually depends on the relative importance (i.e. the positions are due to something other than a random choice/happenstance) thus you'd say "The First Commandment is … or "Point one deals with keeping everything neat and tidy".

Thus if you talk to ten random people, you'll likely end up with twelve different opinions on when to use each!

Dominions Son 🚫

@helmut_meukel

Is this similar to the "me/I" problem where more people speak – and write – grammatically incorrect than grammatically correct?

Yes and no.

No in the sense that If the statement is true, about which way most people do it, then that way isn't grammatically incorrect.

The rules of grammar are descriptive of the common usage, not prescriptive.

There is no organization or entity with the authority to prescribe grammar rules in a global sense.

This is true of every language*.

If grammar text books don't reflect the way most people do it, it's because the textbook publishers simply haven't caught up or are staging an ultimately futile resistance to a change in the rules of grammar that has technically already happened.

*The French government created an agency that nominally has such authority. However, even within France, the efforts of this agency to control the evolution of the French language has been an epic failure.

StarFleet Carl 🚫

@Dominions Son

There is no organization or entity with the authority to prescribe grammar rules in a global sense.

This is true of every language*.

If grammar text books don't reflect the way most people do it, it's because the textbook publishers simply haven't caught up or are staging an ultimately futile resistance to a change in the rules of grammar that has technically already happened.

*The French government created an agency that nominally has such authority. However, even within France, the efforts of this agency to control the evolution of the French language has been an epic failure.

In other words, there really are no grammar police!

When I write conversation, my characters will be grammatically incorrect on purpose. People simply don't talk that way. Between regional accents and localisms, someone from Maine having a discussion with a group from Boston, Texas, Louisiana, and Southern California will be understood by the others, although there will almost certainly be things repeated because they weren't understood the first time.

As for France and epic failures - I thought one was the descriptor for the other. Or (and I'm paraphrasing here, because I'm too lazy to get up and go get the book off my shelf) as John Ringo said, 'The French Military is an excellent fighting force. French Generals, not so much.'

Dominions Son 🚫

@StarFleet Carl

In other words, there really are no grammar police!

There are, but their authority is imaginary.

Replies:   LupusDei
LupusDei 🚫
Updated:

@Dominions Son

Not always.

Well, well, while it is true for English, French are not the only one concerned about purism of their languages and perceived dangers of the globalized world to endow institutions with purpose for conservation and police powers.

Latvian, being, not entirely jokingly, partially artificial language to begin with, do have an official Language Commission with legal and police powers that can issue fines for misuse of language (such as garbled transactions in product descriptions in a store, for example) and litigate over spelling of words -- including person names*.

Ours is populated by aging academics and mostly reactive, often trying to invent new words for already established loanwords in professional jargon and picking similar windmill fights, but not always futile. Analogous institution of Lithuanian language is more proactive and successful by analyzing trends and predicting needs.

* I think I have already mentioned that case when parents were sued over insisting their child name must be Otto and required to write it Oto in document on grounds that double tt isn't pronounced differently than single t. The case got public traction and significant part of general public seemed to disagree, but the Commission got their way. And yes, one of the pillars of purism is to defend the phonetic writing, thus transliteration of foreign words and names is legally required, including adding gendered endings if at all possible. If, for example, John and Joan Newyorker received Latvian passports, teir names would likely be spelled Džons Ņujokietis and Žanna Ņujokiete in them, and that spelling would be legally protected.

There was also dragged out public discussion should country name of Iceland be written with short or long i, so Islande or Īslande, and despite sizable resistance the long form won even if it wasn't in actual popular usage then, but they insisted that to be more correct transliteration of the original. It is now widely adopted in speech as a result.

One of latest controversies was about gender of the slightly irregular native lexicon word sāls = salt. The current ruling is that it isn't just a collision of male and female forms in nominative, but indeed the one and olny unique neuter gender word in the whole language. That makes some possible forms of the word formally ungrammatical.

Dominions Son 🚫

@LupusDei

Latvian, being, not entirely jokingly, partially artificial language to begin with, do have an official Language Commission with legal and police powers that can issue fines for misuse of language (such as garbled transactions in product descriptions in a store, for example) and litigate over spelling of words -- including person names*.

Count me skeptical that they are any more effective than the French at preventing unapproved evolutions of the language.

Replies:   LupusDei
LupusDei 🚫
Updated:

@Dominions Son

Not entirely, sure. It's not even completely the mission, at least not all of it. (And I'm not very knowledgeable how successful or not the French are by comparison.)

But they do have an impact, in some cases a measurable one (like the Islande/Īslande case). And given the pressure the language is under... That the new local Russian dialect (spoken at home by ~35% of population) now often use Latvian structures with Russian lexicon and has distinct pronunciation despite almost entirely existing in Moscow's information space with seemingly minimal exposure to the State Language (as almost anyone speaks Russian on stubborn enough demand) is a remarkable feat for a language spoken by barely two million people worldwide.

Latvian has quite long history of language changes by edict, and it works both ways -- sometimes the administrative changes stick.

One story is how palatized R (written with a comma underneath) was abolished by Soviet authorities together with the ch, with was a good idea in contrast (the H only occurs in loanwords anyway, the Middle Latvian dialect natively doesn't use the sound at all, and the ch was supposed to be hard while simple h could, in theory, be silent sometimes, but both were actually pronounced identically almost always).

Well, palatized R it is indeed an abomination nobody can possibly ever pronounce, and it was used in like, six or so word stems, and made no difference in all of those cases except dzert = to drink.

Thing is, one of few important spoken language features not preserved in writing in Latvian is differentiating between e and æ. Instead of using the later as it's own letter (or two, because of course we would need the long version too) there is a convoluted rule that postulate that all e should be pronounced æ unless a narrowing sound is encountered afterwards. Yes, it parses the word backwards. Palatized R was one of such narrowing sounds, a regular R isn't. Also, while that's not any official rule, there are also widening sounds that encourage use of æ unless explicitly negated, and one of those is U.

In result, dzert and most other forms, somewhat inexplicably even dzēru (= I drank) regains the implied palatized R and is spoken with narrow e, while dzeru (= I drink) is now spoken with æ more often than not. It's often presented as a joke, but there's an ongoing meanig split in: "Tee I dzeru, but vodka I dzæru! As such it bleeds back to infinite as dzært with, true, isn't even wrong if there's no palatized R, but some other forms would seem rather unwieldy at least for now, and the official line militantly defends the now seemingly wrong pronunciation. And, for example dzēri (= you drank) would remain narrow anyway, because of the i at the end.

Sure, English speakers wouldn't care (their language being a mess it is), but with the beauty of almost mathematical regularity Latvian grammar is, or supposed to be, that's a pain.

There are much more serious challenges, such as preserving the three intonation system... with in a way is one of those near-artifical aspects of the formalized Middle Latvian as none of the actual dialects had all three before that abstraction was introduced as official. It's also one of those few features of speech not preserved in writing, and is about how vowels are pronounced, making for example word zāles mean hols, weeds or medicine depending on how one manipulates breathing while singing out that long ā something like: (stretched) zAAAles = hols, (falling) zAales = weeds, (broken) za-Ales = medicine. While there's only few words with all three variations, every single vowel, even the short ones, have one of those three implied even when it doesn't change meaning; mistakes sound strange to a native anyway. (And yes, native Russian speakers are completely deaf to this.)

Replies:   Dominions Son
Dominions Son 🚫

@LupusDei

Latvian has quite long history of language changes by edict

pushing for changes is an entirely different thing from trying to prevent natural evolution of a language.

Replies:   LupusDei
LupusDei 🚫

@Dominions Son

No, it's not pushing for changes, not quite. It's meant to be formalizing changes or rather organizing them, and doing it sooner than later is usually seen as a feature not a bug, because, yes, it offers opportunity to apply influence.

The example with the palatized R was of one gone wrong (and sometimes ascribed to malice), but even that looked quite right on paper: the letter was there, but almost nobody pronounced the sound anymore (try pronounce Y from York while pronouncing R), and removal made a mess with exactly one word stem. Unfortunately, that happened to be a very popular one having a verb (with all the hundreds of forms it entails) and countless derived nouns.

Replies:   Dominions Son
Dominions Son 🚫

@LupusDei

yes, it offers opportunity to apply influence.

Influence is not equal to control.

Replies:   LupusDei
LupusDei 🚫
Updated:

@Dominions Son

Their decisions are legally binding.

But just like about any other law, it's a fine line between arbitrary decision and popular support. If legislator fail the law is useless and unenforceable.

Switch Blayde 🚫

@LupusDei

One of latest controversies was about gender of the slightly irregular native lexicon word sāls = salt.

Maybe all languages have their weirdos. Italian does. This is an excerpt from my novel "Lonely War Widows" (validated by a native Italian speaker).

"What's the Italian word for egg?" Mrs. Romano asked.

"Uovo."

"What is the plural of that?"

"Uova."

"But, Mr. Harken, uovo is a masculine noun so the 'o' should be replaced with an 'i' to make it plural. Feminine nouns end with an 'a', right?"

Boyd felt a lump in his throat. His answer had been automatic. Now he was unsure.

"It would end with an 'a' if it was a feminine singular noun," Boyd said, "but this is plural."

"But a plural masculine noun ends in an 'i', doesn't it?"

Boyd's mouth got dry. He swallowed. "It's an exception to the rule."

Mrs. Romano clapped her hands. "That's right. Good job, Mr. Harken." Her attention shifted to the class. "There are a lot of exceptions in the Italian language. I'm sorry to have to tell you this, but you're going to have to memorize them."

Replies:   LupusDei
LupusDei 🚫
Updated:

@Switch Blayde

Maybe all languages have their weirdos. Italian does.

Sure there is. But they made -- or tried to -- already weird word weirder by edict for no particularly good reason. It used to be a member of small group of exceptions but consistent enough as one such. Seriously, I even have to go look it up to even know what in particular they accomplished...

And doing so indeed, I have to conclude that, that particular attempt apparently failed, despite me distinctly remembering all the noise, I can't even find solid references to all of it, and all trustworthy sources claim it's still officially male as was declared back in the sixties. The apparently current official advice is to use it in masculine form even in the one case (cooking salt) where traditionally the adjective was always used in female form.

And that's basically where the controversy is, that the cooking salt is feminine while chemical salt is masculine, even when we talk about the exact same substance, and people obsessed by terminology can't live with that.

Unless there's an adjective (with must agree in gender and count with its noun) making gender explicit, the only difference in singular is in dative: (m) sālim, (f) sālij all other forms collide, the plural differ broadly by gender, but there is ever only exactly one feminine salt, in one particular use case (in the kitchen or on the table), so feminine plural forms formally have no meaning... unless you go in flavored or fluoridated or whatever varieties, maybe.

Nobody ever fretted that uguns = fire is exactly the same way and is routinely used in both genders. There's no shortage of nouns where nominative is the same for both genders.

Switch Blayde 🚫

@StarFleet Carl

there really are no grammar police!

Because of the movement to "defund the grammar police." :)

awnlee jawking 🚫

@StarFleet Carl

In other words, there really are no grammar police!

Actually there are - exam markers.

In the UK at the moment there's a controversial move to stop penalising bad spelling and grammar in exams unless they're specifically relevant (ie an English exam) because it discriminates against candidates who are not native English speakers.

AJ

Replies:   Grant
Grant 🚫

@awnlee jawking

In the UK at the moment there's a controversial move to stop penalising bad spelling and grammar in exams unless they're specifically relevant (ie an English exam) because it discriminates against candidates who are not native English speakers.

Often it's the non-native English speakers students that have better spelling and grammar than the locally born as they would've had English as a Second Language (or similar) classes when they first started at school before going to regular English classes.

The whole point of the spoken & written word is to communicate. Doing so in a way that is clear & concise makes it possible to get your point/message/information across & understood as it was intended. Poor spelling and grammar can make anything from a bit difficult to totally impossible to understand what is being conveyed.

It doesn't matter what the subject is- if you can't make yourself understood, then it doesn't matter how brilliant you might be. Getting the spelling and grammar right is just as important as the facts in whatever subject it is that's being assessed.

helmut_meukel 🚫

@Dominions Son

This is true of every language*.
[...]
*The French government created an agency that nominally has such authority. However, even within France, the efforts of this agency to control the evolution of the French language has been an epic failure.

I don't think it's an epic failure, their problem is they tried to stop the tide, to force a "French" word for every new technology and created some awkward names. At least in school and in ads you'll hardly find the common English terms used. The fines for not using the proper French terms are high.

The German authorities go another way. They concentrate on grammar and spelling and force the actual rules on all schools. This forces publishers of text books for school usage to use the rules or their books get banned from school usage.
Government agencies have to use correct grammar and spelling.
actual German orthography reform

HM.

joyR 🚫

@helmut_meukel

Do people commonly mix cardinals and ordinals when talking?

No.

With the caveat that abominable spelling and grammar is fast becoming all too common nowadays.

Grey Wolf 🚫

@helmut_meukel

I might write that in dialogue, because I know people who do talk that way. They wouldn't do it in writing (mostly), but speaking? People get confused mid-sentence as to whether they're using ordinals or cardinals, etc. I've heard some amazingly ungrammatical things come out of the mouths of people whose written grammar is perfectly fine. Unusually it's because the sentence started wandering mid-statement, and ordinal/cardinal confusion fits that.

Of course, most likely my editors would point it out and I'd change it. As Switch Blayde and Quasirandom point out, dialogue in fiction is a fine line between 'accurate' and 'verisimilitude'. If you force everyone into the same grammatical box, you lose some part of the character's unique voice, but if you don't reduce the variation, you get dialect, which is hard to read for a sustained period and becomes difficult for foreign readers to understand.

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