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Copyright and Music

PotomacBob 🚫

I've noticed some news stories - the Trump campaign is using songs and the artist complains (and has now filed a lawsuit) because the artist thinks the use of his song implies that he endorses the Trump presidency.
The stories go on to say that other artists have complained in the past about use of their songs by campaigns without their permission.
The stories say further that legal experts think the lawsuit has little chance of winning.
I hoped for further explanation, but none was forthcoming. Does anybody here understand the issues enough to explain it? Is there some sort of legal theory that if you let anybody play your song you must let everybody play your song? radio stations play songs all the time. Surely they don't have to get permission every time they play a song, do they? Isn't there some sort of clearing house for use of songs?

Eddie Davidson 🚫
Updated:

I am no lawyer.

Which is all you have to read to know that my words are just my opinion and not legal fact.

However, even I know that there is a difference between playing the song at a house party and playing it as part of a televised broadcast, political rally, advertisement, or movie.

Absolutely, a musician should have control over their music to the point that they can forbid someone from using it as part of their advertising and branding.

Replies:   Ernest Bywater
Ernest Bywater 🚫

@Eddie Davidson

Absolutely, a musician should have control over their music to the point that they can forbid someone from using it as part of their advertising and branding.

Nope, once the recording is made for a label the label owns the copyright for that performance and they get to decide who can play it after that. If an artist wishes to control the song after they record it they need to set up their own label and record it themselves.

Replies:   bk69  Eddie Davidson
bk69 🚫

@Ernest Bywater

In actuality, it depends on the contract they signed with their label.

Such deals are usually pretty one-sided in the label's favor. Really established acts have more leeway.

Replies:   Ernest Bywater
Ernest Bywater 🚫

@bk69

Such deals are usually pretty one-sided in the label's favor. Really established acts have more leeway.

The only recording contracts I've heard about where the artist has any say in the use of the finished product have been where the artist has a significant share in the ownership of the recording company (i.e. the label). In general, whoever pays to have the recording made owns the copyright of the performance.

Replies:   Mushroom
Mushroom 🚫

@Ernest Bywater

The only recording contracts I've heard about where the artist has any say in the use of the finished product have been where the artist has a significant share in the ownership of the recording company (i.e. the label). In general, whoever pays to have the recording made owns the copyright of the performance.

That is only for royalties. They are still covered under the same "Fair Use" laws as the rest of the industry.

THis is why for example neither Weird Al, or any other parody artist needs permission from an artist to parody their works. They are free to do so however they like. They only have to pay the required royalties if the song or material is sold. AL is well known for getting the permission from the original artist (not the rights holder), but that is just to keep a good relation. And he only honors that for recording the song.

Paul McCartney, Prince, and many artists have refused him, and he simply never records those songs. But he still played them constantly in concert. I have heard him perform his Sir Paul song at least 3 times over the years. Fair use is fair use, even the Supreme Court has affirmed that.

Replies:   Ernest Bywater
Ernest Bywater 🚫

@Mushroom

THis is why for example neither Weird Al, or any other parody artist needs permission from an artist to parody their works. They are free to do so however they like. They only have to pay the required royalties if the song or material is sold. AL is well known for getting the permission from the original artist (not the rights holder), but that is just to keep a good relation. And he only honors that for recording the song.

Doing a parody of a whole song the way Weird Al does it still requires the legal permission to use the music. This is because the fair use parody justification is seen by the courts as only relating to the use of a small part of the material being parodied.

The other point to keep in mind is that with some copyrighted material the local laws are secondary to the laws as written in the jurisdiction of where they were originally copyrighted. This is because the local laws are usually written in such a way as to recognise the copyright terms of other countries. That's why most of the Sherlock Holmes stories are in the Public Domain world wide but a few that were first released in the USA are still under US copyright restrictions.

Replies:   Mushroom
Mushroom 🚫

@Ernest Bywater

Doing a parody of a whole song the way Weird Al does it still requires the legal permission to use the music. This is because the fair use parody justification is seen by the courts as only relating to the use of a small part of the material being parodied.

Nope. this was settled long ago when Roy Orbison went after 2 Live Crew over his song Pretty Woman. In Campbell v. Acuff-Rose Music, Inc. (1994), the SCOTUS stated quite clearly that parody is indeed "Fair Use". No permission was in any way required, but recognition and royalties do were required.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Campbell_v._Acuff-Rose_Music,_Inc.

THis is still the ruling that exists to this day in regards to parody. That is why all those stupid Parody movies of a decade ago could be made without fear.

What you are thinking is of a much older case, relating to the music act Buchanon and Goodman, who released a series of parody records that used clips of songs strung together to tell a story. Their first release used actual original song clips. This was the standard used for years, where short clips were considered to not be infringement.

But by the 1990s, this had changed. Groups like The Capitol Steps were having threats of being sued, and the Hip Hop industry was under increasing attacks for copyright infringement. SCOTUS tried the middle ground, saying that parody was allowed, but that royalties had to be paid, if the rights holder wanted it or not.

That is why some of the royalties for parody can get strange. Sting makes royalties from Weird Al, because he holds right to "Money for Nothing" by Dire Straits. He got that for his singing "I want my MTV" on the original, to the tune of his song "Don't Stand So Close To Me".

But no "permission" is needed, that was given up when they released it for public consumption.

Replies:   PotomacBob
PotomacBob 🚫

@Mushroom

Doing a parody of a whole song the way Weird Al does it still requires the legal permission to use the music. This is because the fair use parody justification is seen by the courts as only relating to the use of a small part of the material being parodied.

Thanks to Mushroom for specifics - a specific ruling in a specific case, cited.

Nope. this was settled long ago when Roy Orbison went after 2 Live Crew over his song Pretty Woman. In Campbell v. Acuff-Rose Music, Inc. (1994), the SCOTUS stated quite clearly that parody is indeed "Fair Use".

Eddie Davidson 🚫

@Ernest Bywater

So do you not think Rage against the machine is justified to tell Trump he IS the machine they were raging against/cut it out?

Replies:   Ernest Bywater
Ernest Bywater 🚫

@Eddie Davidson

So do you not think Rage against the machine is justified to tell Trump he IS the machine they were raging against/cut it out?

I'm not familiar with the song or the use you're referring to. However, how the artists feel and what they thought when they wrote the song or performed it has absolutely no relevance to the legality of what the copyright owner can do with the finished product.

Uther_Pendragon 🚫

@PotomacBob

IANAL
But my understanding rom long ago when the question was of performance of a composition rather than playing a recording, was that the copyright remained valid. There is a standard cost for performing a work in public.

The theory may be that the campaign need only pay the standard charge; the theory may be that the campaign will have gone out of existence before the case can come to court.

bk69 🚫

@PotomacBob

In theory, radio stations are liable to pay royalties. However, radio and the record labels have been more incestuous than Saskatchewan, the Gaspe. and West Virginia in a "What happens at the family reunion STAYS at the family reunion" style party, and long ago argued that radio airplay was advertising for the artist/label. There may be some payment still, but...

However... use a song (or even three recognizable notes from a song) in advertising, and watch the lawyers scurry out of the woodwork to get their share of blood.

The question is whether or not one can show that the song is being used for advertising purposes.

Ernest Bywater 🚫

@PotomacBob

I can't remember which sng it was, but there was one case a few years back where the artist bitched about their song being used for a political campaign and started court action. They ended up stopping the court action and paying the politician's costs because it quickly came to light the copyright holder of the recording had been paid royalties to use the song and thus the use was legal.

What a lot of people don't know or realise that there are multiple copyrights in a song performance:

1. Copyright of the lyrics.

2. Copyright of the music.

3. Copyright of the performance.

Even with a song where Fred Smith writes the lyrics, music, and sings the song the copyright of the performance belongs to the label recording the performance. So when the studio licenses the use of the recording to someone there is nothing the artist can do about it. Also, if the artist wants to allow someone to use a song they have to either get the label to approve the use or to make a new recording by whoever is to use the song.

Now for playing by the radio stations. They keep a list of every song they play and they pay a small royalty for playing the song every time they play it; and this is as per a general license agreement with all of the labels. However, one way to get publicity for a new release is for the label to give limited 'royalty free' rights to play the song to the radio station during the publicity campaign period. In some countries this is handled via a 'royalty pool' system.

Replies:   StarFleet Carl
StarFleet Carl 🚫

@Ernest Bywater

They ended up stopping the court action and paying the politician's costs because it quickly came to light the copyright holder of the recording had been paid royalties to use the song and thus the use was legal.

Sarah Palin - Barracuda, IIRC.

Mushroom 🚫

No artist has a right to complain legally if a politician or even a sports team or anybody else decides to use one of their songs for non-commercial purposes.

The absolute most that can be done is that they insist that they be paid for the use under the standard agreements in place. This is almost never done, because it quite literally is in the range of around $5. None can be forbidden from being allowed to do it, as it is legally considered a "fair use" of such material.

Essentially, it literally all boils down to politics. An individual does not like a candidate, and wants them to not use their song. Legally, they can not stop them. The candidate or anybody else can tell them to go pound sand, and at most simply pay the fee as if it was being broadcast.

Replies:   Eddie Davidson  bk69
Eddie Davidson 🚫

@Mushroom

Tom Petty's estate issued a cease and desist letter to Trump's campaign on the grounds that Tom Petty would never approve of the things he's doing.

So they must feel differently about their rights than you do

Dominions Son 🚫

@Eddie Davidson

Tom Petty's estate issued a cease and desist letter to Trump's campaign on the grounds that Tom Petty would never approve of the things he's doing.

The suit has no chance of succeeding as long as the Trump campaign paid the license fees.

There is mandatory licensing scheme in place for music.

Mushroom 🚫

@Eddie Davidson

Tom Petty's estate issued a cease and desist letter to Trump's campaign on the grounds that Tom Petty would never approve of the things he's doing.

And so long as it is not part of a commercial use, there is nothing they can actually do about it. At most, they can simply enforce that the royalties are being paid. Which for single non-broadcast rights are automatically given, and so pitifully small most never even bother to ask for it.

A great many years ago I was listening to an interview by Heart, as they talked about how they got started as a cover band, mostly doing Beatle songs. And being young they did not understand this, and actually wrote George Martin for permission. He sent them a letter back, explaining how this worked, and at that time the fee was around 50 cents. And to not even bother sending in the 50 cents each time they performed, nobody would care.

They could send the campaign 1,000 C&D letters. So long as it was simply played at a rally, they had no legal right to complain as that is "fair use". They could not even complain if it was for commercial use, so long as the recording was legally licensed through the right holder.

Or if they had a cover band perform the song for a commercial. They would be entitled to a share of royalties as the rights holder of the original song, but have no right to prohibit it's use.

Ernest Bywater 🚫

@Eddie Davidson

Tom Petty's estate issued a cease and desist letter to Trump's campaign on the grounds that Tom Petty would never approve of the things he's doing.

You may want to check who owns the copyright. It's likely that his estate may own the copyright as he did make an effort to regain control of the copyrights after he got rich enough to start recording in his own right and able to buy back some of the rights. A few famous performers did that, but they are more the exception than the rule.

bk69 🚫

@Mushroom

Essentially, it literally all boils down to politics.

Exactly.

And as we all know, in politics, appearance matters more than reality. So the 'artist' makes as large a stink as possible, to the point where any fan of said 'artist' is likely to be aware that the politician in question does NOT have the endorsement of said 'artist'.

Which is the point of the legal action. Not that a C&D will prevent use of the music, but that it will make clear that the 'artist' doesn't like the PoS.

ystokes 🚫

One of the most funniest thing is that most times the campaigns don't read the lyrics of the songs. In 84 Reagan used Bruce Springsteen's Born in the USA not knowing it was critical of the Viet Nam war.

Neil Young is suing Trump for using Rocking in the free world which is very critical of the USA. Last week at a Trump rally they were playing Live and let Die by Guns and Roses.

I guess next week it will be Ohio by CSN&Y.

Replies:   Mushroom
Mushroom 🚫

@ystokes

One of the most funniest thing is that most times the campaigns don't read the lyrics of the songs. In 84 Reagan used Bruce Springsteen's Born in the USA not knowing it was critical of the Viet Nam war.

Neil Young is suing Trump for using Rocking in the free world which is very critical of the USA. Last week at a Trump rally they were playing Live and let Die by Guns and Roses.

And odds are, those songs were picked by a 20 or 30-something board operator that is simply doing a gig and likes the song. Very rarely does the "talent" actually get involved in things like that.

Heck, one of the funniest I know of involves Rush Limbaugh. From when he was still a local radio host, he used the bass line from the start of "My City is Gone" by The Pretenders as his theme song. Then 15 years later, EMI (rights holder) sent him a C&D. He actually picked it for the irony of it, and he liked the bass riff. He then simply paid them the mandated royalty as his use had become a key part of the show and the complaint stopped.

The writer even got involved, and Chrissie Hynde not only did not mind the use, she got EMI to donate the royalties collected to PETA.

Replies:   ystokes
ystokes 🚫

@Mushroom

And odds are, those songs were picked by a 20 or 30-something board operator that is simply doing a gig and likes the song. Very rarely does the "talent" actually get involved in things like that.

Yea but you would think that someone would get involved since the songs are such a bad choice.

In 84 Reagan was running as a pro-military Ronbo yet playing a song about how the country let down the vets.

Who thought it was a good idea to play a song called Live and let Die when over 1,000 people were dying day after day.

Replies:   Mushroom  bk69
Mushroom 🚫

@ystokes

Yea but you would think that someone would get involved since the songs are such a bad choice.

In these kinds of events, generally the "board op" is either contracted locally, or is a local employee of the venue where it is being held.

Generally they are only given a handful of songs, and cues when to play them. This is maybe 5-10 minutes, the rest of the time is generally left up to them to fill out however they want.

And most tend to remain the James Watt affair when it comes to things like that. In 1983 he tried to ban a Beach Boys concert, saying they attracted the "wrong crowd". And he got lambasted over it, including by the President, Vice President, and First Lady. Since then, most politicians and their handlers tend to stay out of such things.

Yea, been a board op myself. Even got complemented by Kid Rock by playing Warren Zevon and Skynyrd before he took a stage once.

And if I was ever to return to that in the future, you can be sure if I ever had a chance to do so for Mark Wahlberg, I would probably play "Wildside". But permanent bilateral tinnitus makes that unlikely. But that is my snarky sense of humor.

Heck, when working at a strip club 20 years ago I loved playing "Weenie in a Bottle" when the girls got pissed off because nobody tipped. My snarky way of telling the guys to go home and do that if they were not going to tip the ladies.

bk69 🚫

@ystokes

Who thought it was a good idea to play a song called Live and let Die when over 1,000 people were dying day after day.

I'm pretty sure that at least a million people die every day.

Whether someone plays a James Bond theme doesn't influence that.

Eddie Davidson 🚫

Tom Petty's estate owns his entire catalog

Replies:   PotomacBob
PotomacBob 🚫

@Eddie Davidson

I think I remember something years ago about Michael Jackson owning rights to the Beatles songs.

Replies:   JimWar
JimWar 🚫

@PotomacBob

Not to get too far off topic here but I think I read that the several of the artists who sued knew that the suits would only be a nuisance. They sued to get their opposition to Trump out there in the media.

Ernest Bywater 🚫

Which, again, shows how the US Supreme Court will try to re-write laws instead of applying them as they are. Mind you, such a decision could only ever be given in the USA as no other country would accept the use of the whole tune as a fair use or parody of the music.

I can see how they could get away with the usage on the words, but they are breaking copyright law in using the music unaltered without permission. Except, it seems, in the USA you need to be breaking all aspects of the copyrights to be held accountable.

Dominions Son 🚫

@Ernest Bywater

Which, again, shows how the US Supreme Court will try to re-write laws instead of applying them as they are.

No, it shows you don't understand US law the way you think you do.

Yes, what is considered fair use in the US is much broader than it would be in other countries. This is a consequence of the 1st amendment to the US constitution, not the US Supreme Court re-writing copyright law on a whim.

The way the US constitution works, to the extent that Copyright law is in conflict with the 1st Amendment, it is copyright law that must bend, not the 1st Amendment.

In the realm of music, the US has mandatory licensing schemes in place. The license fees are paid to a central agency set up for that purpose.

In the case of parodies generally, long standing fair use analysis at the time was actually codified in the 1976 copyright act.

From the link that was posted by Mushroom:

This analysis was eventually codified in the Copyright Act of 1976 in Β§ 107 as follows:

Notwithstanding the provisions of sections 106 and 106A, the fair use of a copyrighted work, including such use by reproduction in copies or phonorecords or by any other means specified by that section, for purposes such as criticism, comment, news reporting, teaching (including multiple copies for classroom use), scholarship, or research, is not an infringement of copyright. In determining whether the use made of a work in any particular case is a fair use the factors to be considered shall includeβ€”

(1) the purpose and character of the use, including whether such use is of a commercial nature or is for nonprofit educational purposes;
(2) the nature of the copyrighted work;
(3) the amount and substantiality of the portion used in relation to the copyrighted work as a whole; and

(4) the effect of the use upon the potential market for or value of the copyrighted work.

Please note that while how much of a work is use is a factor:

1. there is no specific proportion/percentage specificed
2. The amount of the work use is neither the first nor the primary factor.

Ernest Bywater 🚫
Updated:

@Dominions Son

The fair use laws were never intended to cover the use of the whole of anything copyrighted, and the parody law is meant for it to be different to the original. However, when you use the whole of the original without any change it is not a parody.

In a musical performance there are 3 copyright items involved:

1. The music.

2. The lyrics.

3. The performance by the artists.

You can easily do a parody of the lyrics or the performance by changing the words and the way it's performed. However, if you use the music exactly as it is, then it is not a parody of the music, but a use and performance of the music, and thus not covered by the fair use laws as you are using the whole of the copyrighted item of the music. In the court decision stated it's clear they are re-writing the law by ignoring the copyright aspect of the music as separate from the lyrics or the performance.

The US 1st Amendment has no effect on the issue as the music itself has nothing to do with free expression as stated in the 1st Amendment. The lyrics can have a 1st Amendment application, but the music itself can't.

edit to add: The whole issue can easily be avoided by paying the royalty for the performance of the music to the music copyright holder.

Replies:   bk69  Dominions Son
bk69 🚫

@Ernest Bywater

The lyrics can have a 1st Amendment application, but the music itself can't.

Don't count on it. Left-leaning SCOTUS justices have a tendency to make up fictional rights whenever needed to 'justify' the decision they want.

Ernest Bywater 🚫

@bk69

Don't count on it. Left-leaning SCOTUS justices have a tendency to make up fictional rights whenever needed to 'justify' the decision they want.

That was the main point of my earlier posts. Sadly, I was using logic and plain English - 2 things I should never expect to see applied in US courts at any level.

Replies:   bk69
bk69 🚫

@Ernest Bywater

logic and plain English - 2 things I should never expect to see applied in US courts

Not true.

Basic tenet of logic -> "FOLLOW THE MONEY"

This basically almost always holds true in US courts, except in tort law.

Dominions Son 🚫

@bk69

The lyrics can have a 1st Amendment application, but the music itself can't.


Don't count on it. Left-leaning SCOTUS justices have a tendency to make up fictional rights whenever needed to 'justify' the decision they want.

Earnest is simply flat wrong on his interpretation of US copyright law.

And while SCOTUS Justices may well have the tendency to do what you suggest, in this case, they just don't have to. It's codified in the 1976 Copyright Act.

Replies:   Ernest Bywater
Ernest Bywater 🚫

@Dominions Son

It's codified in the 1976 Copyright Act.

Wrong, the act makes the use of something exactly as is a copyright violation, thus the music is in copyright violation if you don't change it.

Replies:   Dominions Son
Dominions Son 🚫

@Ernest Bywater

Wrong, the act makes the use of something exactly as is a copyright violation, thus the music is in copyright violation if you don't change it.

Fair use is codifed in the act and as written, yes, under some circumstances, it would allow for the use of the entire work as fair use.

PotomacBob 🚫

@bk69

Left-leaning SCOTUS justices have a tendency to make up fictional rights whenever needed to 'justify' the decision they want.

Of course. Right-leaning judges would never make up fictional rights to justify their decisions. (This is supposed to be sarcasm!)

Replies:   bk69
bk69 🚫

@PotomacBob

Ok.

Right to Privacy.

Now you name one right that 'the right' has made up. (BTW, the left started eminent domain)

hint: the right generally argues to read the constitution as written, the left always wants to read things into the constitution, even though the constitution clearly sets out how to add in anything that the population really wants added, even if it's something as stupid as prohibition.

PotomacBob 🚫

@bk69

Now you name one right that 'the right' has made up.

You asked for at least one. I'll give you three. I personally disagree with some of these decisions. These rulings demonstrate that it is not only the court's left wing that creates rights.

1. Citizens United v. FEC (2010) - The conservative court ruled that corporate political spending is free speech and covered by the 1st amendment. The ruling created new constitutional rights for corporations, even though the Constitution nowhere mentions any rights for constitutions. In creating these new rights, the court held that money is speech and corporations are people.
2. District of Columbia v. Heller (2008). The conservative court ruled for the first time that the second amendment right to bear arms is an individual right. It created new rights for gun owners. In all previous cases, the court held that the right to bear arms belonged to state militias as a collective right.
3. Janus v. American Federation of State, County and Municipal Employees, held for the first time that employees have a right NOT to pay a bargaining fee. Such fees were contained in contracts that, to become effective, must be ratified by both the union and the corporation. The court in previous rulings had held that since employees benefit from the collective bargaining agreement, they can be required to pay a bargaining fee.

bk69 🚫

@PotomacBob

1. Not quite. The corporation has long been considered a (basically immortal) person in law, although lacking voting power. But just as a curiosity - do you believe unions should be allowed to spend money on political campaigns? Unions are not individuals and more than a corporation is.

2. "the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed." - The people. Not the specific group of people that the government chooses. The people. As in that great unwashed mass of individuals. That's reading the constitution as written.

3. Ok, the right not to be stolen from by a union is never actually mentioned in the constitution, I'll give you that.

PotomacBob 🚫

@bk69

That's reading the constitution as written.

You left out part of the sentence.

Replies:   bk69
bk69 🚫

@PotomacBob

Yes, I left out the part that those who believe the government should always be able to infringe upon rights frequently use to try to justify infringing the very right that the amendment says shall not be infringed.
I would wager that if any of the folks who wrote the constitution knew the kind of twisting of their words would be subjected to in order to limit freedoms, they would've been careful to just list the rights that shouldn't be infringed, and included nothing else.

PotomacBob 🚫

@bk69

the right not to be stolen from by a union

You have a right to view it as theft. But both the corporation that employed them and the union that represented them agreed to the provision. If it was theft, both sides were guilty.

PotomacBob 🚫

@bk69

Unions are not individuals and more than a corporation is.

Agreed. My opinion is that both unions and corporations should be prohibited from making political contributions (and my opinion is worth exactly nothing - but you asked for it.) The case I cited, however, was not about unions. It was about corporations being able to contribute money directly from the corporate treasury to political candidates and it is an example of the "right wing" on the Supreme Court granting rights where none existed before.

Replies:   Dominions Son  karactr
Dominions Son 🚫

@PotomacBob

The case I cited, however, was not about unions. It was about corporations being able to contribute money directly from the corporate treasury to political candidates

No, that is NOT what Citizens United was about. Citizens United was about independent expenditures.

The Citizens United group made and wanted to release an unflattering documentary about Hillary Clinton. They did not give any money to the Republican party or to the campaign organization of the Republican candidate.

It wasn't even a campaign ad, it didn't say anything about who viewers should vote for.

The FEC ruled that this documentary qualified as an in-kind contribution and tried to impose penalties on Citizens United on that basis.

karactr 🚫

@PotomacBob

Supreme Court granting rights where none existed before.

I am not so sure this is accurate. Isn't it more reaffirming that corporations are entities with rights? If I, as an individual, have the right to contribute my money, why would a corporate individual NOT have the same right?

PotomacBob 🚫

@bk69

The corporation has long been considered a (basically immortal) person in law, although lacking voting power.

Okay. My point was not that Citizens United granted corporations the right to exist (as your response implies); I never claimed that. Citizens United granted, for the first time, the right for corporations to spend money from the corporate treasury in political campaigns.

Ernest Bywater 🚫

@bk69

3. Ok, the right not to be stolen from by a union is never actually mentioned in the constitution, I'll give you that.

Nor is a right for the union, or any private organisation, to charge fees for services the person didn't request. Any time union membership is forced on anyone it's extortion, plain and simple. Union membership should be totally voluntary.

Replies:   bk69
bk69 🚫

@Ernest Bywater

union membership is [...] extortion

Explains why unions and the mafia were a natural fit.

richardshagrin 🚫

@PotomacBob

right to bear arms

There is both a right to arm bears and to bare arms. (They can't make you wear a long sleeved shirt.)

"The Right to Arm Bears - Wikipediaen.wikipedia.org ' wiki ' The_Right_to_Arm_Bears
The Right to Arm Bears is a collection of two science fiction novels and one novelette by American writer Gordon R. Dickson. They are set on the planet Dilbia, where humans and an alien race known as Hemnoids are trying to win the support of the native bear-like population.
β€ŽPlot summary Β· β€ŽSpacial Delivery Β· β€ŽSpacepaw Β· β€Ž"The Law-Twister Shorty"

Dominions Son 🚫

@PotomacBob

District of Columbia v. Heller (2008). The conservative court ruled for the first time that the second amendment right to bear arms is an individual right.

Not exactly. You should look up US v. Miller from the 1930s. Miller was charged with violating the NFA by possession of a short barreled shot gun.

Miller challenged his conviction on the basis of the second amendment.

The court ruled that short barreled shotguns were not military arms and thus not protected by the Second Amendment.

However, had the court not considered the right to keep and bare arms described in the Second Amendment to be an individual right, it would have never gotten that far because they simply wouldn't have allowed Miller to challenge his conviction on that basis.

Miller is the ONLY Second Amendment case decided by the US Supreme Court prior to Heller.

Ernest Bywater 🚫

@PotomacBob

2. District of Columbia v. Heller (2008). The conservative court ruled for the first time that the second amendment right to bear arms is an individual right. It created new rights for gun owners. In all previous cases, the court held that the right to bear arms belonged to state militias as a collective right.

That just shows that the previous courts had made wrong decisions. The 2nd Amendment of the US Constitution established a right for people to bear arms because the powers that be saw a need for an armed population to be able to field a militia. This was further enhanced in the Militia Act of 1792 which details the weapons the people were required to own and bear so they would of the same quality as the military they were likely to face.

Replies:   bk69  Dominions Son
bk69 🚫

@Ernest Bywater

The 2nd Amendment of the US Constitution established a right for people to bear arms

Almost, but not quite, exactly unlike true.

The amendment codified a natural right that the congress would not be allowed to infringe.

Remarkable how well the congress was able to infringe it nonetheless.

Dominions Son 🚫

@Ernest Bywater

That just shows that the previous courts had made wrong decisions.

There were no prior court decisions on the 2A collective right vs individual right issue.

There is only one prior court case on 2A and it presupposes an individual right without discussing it.

DBActive 🚫

@PotomacBob

All 3 of your claims are wrong:
1. The holding in Citizens United was that groups of individuals did not give up their right to free speech by organizing as a corporation instead of in another form. It recognized the rights of individuals, not corporations.
3. Corporations have nothing to do with this case. It applies only to public employee unions.

StarFleet Carl 🚫

@bk69

the left started eminent domain

The left started ABUSING eminent domain. It's actually in the 14th Amendment to the Constitution, Section 1.

nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law;

That's the Amendment that makes Federal AND State death penalties legal. If you have due process of law, they can take your stuff, throw you in jail and loose the key, or put you to death.

Dominions Son 🚫

@Ernest Bywater

The fair use laws were never intended to cover the use of the whole of anything copyrighted, and the parody law is meant for it to be different to the original.

This is simply not true. That's not the way the US law is written.

Replies:   Ernest Bywater
Ernest Bywater 🚫

@Dominions Son

This is simply not true. That's not the way the US law is written.

If you don't make a single change to the notes of the music you're playing it exactly as it is, thus it can't be a parody - yet the Supreme Court has said, in the case sited, that the unchanged music can be a parody despite the copyright laws having been put in place, as stated by the Congress at the time, to stop the unlawful copying and misuse of something copyrighted.

Replies:   Dominions Son
Dominions Son 🚫
Updated:

@Ernest Bywater

If you don't make a single change to the notes of the music you're playing it exactly as it is, thus it can't be a parody

1. AFIK all the parody song cases have been over the lyrics, not the musical score (separate copyright/compulsory licensing). If you are aware of suit over the use of the musical score for a parody song, cite the specific case.

2. It can be for parody without being a parody of the work itself. Used for political parody for example.

ETA: The big song parody artist in the US is Weird Al. IIRC, it has come up and he pays the compulsory license fees on the musical scores, so no, no copyright violations there.

Dominions Son 🚫

@Dominions Son

There is one other factor I forgot to mention.

The US has a compulsory license scheme for music.

https://www.nolo.com/legal-encyclopedia/copyright-compulsory-license.html

This is why law suits against political campaigns for the use of music in the campaign are symbolic efforts doomed to legal failure. They also aren't anything new. Springsteen sued Regan over the use of Born in The USA.

Replies:   Mushroom
Mushroom 🚫

@Dominions Son

This is why law suits against political campaigns for the use of music in the campaign are symbolic efforts doomed to legal failure. They also aren't anything new. Springsteen sued Regan over the use of Born in The USA.

Which also goes right back to the 1st Amendment.

Somebody no more has no more of a right to tell me what I can or can not say than they do over what I can or can not play.

Such C&D letters are purely symbolic. An artist can no more tell a politician or stripper to not play their song than they can tell a radio station to not play it. This is normally done for political reasons, and I find it silly to be honest. Because it has a big chance of alienating a lot of their fans.

And I tend to think Tom Petty likely would have remained silent. He tended to stay out of politics, and his views tended to be a normal mix of both sides of most issues.

PotomacBob 🚫

@Ernest Bywater

Which, again, shows how the US Supreme Court will try to re-write laws instead of applying them as they are.

I'm no expert on what the laws are, but it is my impression that the courts generally rule on interpretation of the laws when the laws themselves are unclear. In the making of laws, two (or more) positions are taken during negotiations, and in trying to resolve their differences they come up with language that is less than clear. That means the courts have to decide what the unclear language means. The courts (or even on the same court, such as SCOTUS), there are disagreements, which is why there are so many split decisions.
What we need, of course, is for the experts on SOL to write the perfectly clear language that even I could understand - then we wouldn't need a court to interpret it.

Ernest Bywater 🚫

One point to keep in mind about this whole issue is while the discussion is US centric and that's appropriate for the use of a US song in US politics it will be extremely different when applied to a song whose initial copyright is from another country as the various International agreements require the signatory countries to recognise the other country's copyright laws. This can result in a song copyrighted under Australian law being used against Australian copyright terms in the US can have the US entity taken to court in Australia under Australian copyright law. In that case their is a clear percentage limit on the fair use aspects and the special exemptions given under some US laws wouldn't apply at all.

Dominions Son 🚫

There is a reason parody song artists don't get sued over the use of the musical score.

In the US, the musical score is almost always under a separate copyright from the lyrics.

Relatively few (there are exceptions) pop music groups (rock bands, rap groups...) own the musical scores for their songs.

The US has a compulsory licensing scheme for music. That compulsory licensing scheme actually goes back to the mid 19th century. It predates not only the current copyright act (1976) it predates the prior act (1906).

The compulsory licenses don't allow for transformative/derivative works. The compulsory licenses exist for both the musical scores and the lyrics.

However, as noted, the musical score is a separate work with a separate copyright and parody song artists generally use the musical score as is, so they would be covered by the compulsory license for the musical score.

Earnest's assumption that parody song artists are necessarily violating the copyright on the musical score is simply wrong.

His claim the the US Supreme Court has signed off on such violations is wrong.

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