What I've read is that the word with the "s" is more British and without the "s" is more American. So, as an American, I make an effort to spell "toward" without the "s".
But the articles I read always seem to spell it with the "s". All those writers can't be British. And on the Forum and stories on SOL, the "s" is there most of the time. And my inclination is to type it with the "s" and force myself to remove the "s".
So I was wondering if the Brit/American thing is bullshit. Being bored, I did an Ngram on it. According to the results, today it's used more without the "s" than it is with the "s". Surprise, surprise.
In the beginning of the graph (1800), it was mostly with the "s". I mean almost all. Maybe that is because literature back then was British literature. Or maybe the Americans hadn't made the change yet. (Did Webster change it?)
But beginning around 1835β1840, there is a pretty steep increase without the "s" and an even bigger decline with the "s". More American writers? Or is the "s-less" catching on?
And then around 1910, they cross (more without the "s") and it stays that way from then to current. That surprised me. As I mentioned, I almost always see it with the "s". But according to Ngram, more people leave the "s" out.
I was actually thinking of going back to writing it with the "s" (and the sister words β forward, backward, etc. as well), but now I'm not going to.
So what does Ngram really tell us?