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Ninth Amendment to U.S. Constitution - Does it Mean Anything?

PotomacBob ๐Ÿšซ

The Ninth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution is a part of what is known as The Bill of Rights.
It says: "The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people."
Does the Ninth Amendment have any meaning? Does it mean that the people have some rights that are not enumerated? Is there, for example, a right to marry? Could a state ban the drinking of coffee because the right to drink coffee is not enumerated? Could a state pass a law that says you can sue me and collect up to $100,000 each time I drink a cup of coffee? Or if I get married?

Grey Wolf ๐Ÿšซ

@PotomacBob

Based on the example being set by several states (Texas being the most notorious of them right now), there is apparently nothing preventing a state from saying that anyone could sue you and collect up to $X each time you drink a cup of coffee (not a constitutional right), as well as, for instance, saying that anyone can sue you and collect up to $X each time you purchase a firearm, or ammunition, or .

Oh, and if they win, you pay their attorney fees, but if you win, they don't pay yours. So anyone who's an attorney can sue away (paying court costs and giving their time pro bono), and you have to defend yourself over and over at your own expense. And, also, it's by definition not a 'frivolous lawsuit'.

As things are going now, I'm not actually sure the Constitution means all that much in terms of individual rights, unless the courts reverse course and do so in a hurry.

Replies:   DBActive
DBActive ๐Ÿšซ

@Grey Wolf

Why, other than the fact that voters wouldn't agree, could a state not decide to ban the sale, possession or consumption of coffee?

Replies:   Remus2  Radagast  Grey Wolf
Remus2 ๐Ÿšซ

@DBActive

Why, other than the fact that voters wouldn't agree, could a state not decide to ban the sale, possession or consumption of coffee?

Theoretically a state could do such a thing.
A state could ban the sale, possession, and consumption of alcohol, and with enough rabble rousing, get it banned nationally. Of course that didn't work out well and had a host of unintended consequences.
The ban on coffee is no more, no less ridiculous than the idea of banning alcohol.

Radagast ๐Ÿšซ

@DBActive

I've wondered why Utah didn't. I'm guessing a lot of Mormons are secret sinners every morning.

Grey Wolf ๐Ÿšซ

@DBActive

My point was sidestepping the 'coffee' example and noting that, as of right now, I don't see any barrier to a state banning the sale, possession, or consumption of anything, whether or not that something is Constitutionally protected. Following the example of the Texas law, one need simply create an enforceable civil penalty for doing X and allow citizens to sue if someone does X.

Take the Fifth in court? Congratulations, you're being sued! Publish something people don't like? You're on the hook for hundreds of suits. And so forth, and so on.

The law relies on the theory that, if the state government doesn't enforce it but leaves that to citizens, there's no one to block, so go right ahead. It's insane, but so far we're stuck with it.

Dominions Son ๐Ÿšซ

@Grey Wolf

The law relies on the theory that, if the state government doesn't enforce it but leaves that to citizens, there's no one to block, so go right ahead. It's insane, but so far we're stuck with it.

It's a bit more complicated then that.

There's preenforcement review and postenforcement review on appeal.

Even before the Texas SB8 bill, SCOTUS did not allow preenforcement review in all areas. Criminal statutes notably do not normally allow for preenforcement review.

SB8 blocks preenforcement review, but nothing in that bill will prevent postenforcement review on appeal in a normal case brought under the SB8 law.

StarFleet Carl ๐Ÿšซ

@Grey Wolf

The law relies on the theory that, if the state government doesn't enforce it but leaves that to citizens, there's no one to block, so go right ahead. It's insane, but so far we're stuck with it.

Actually, it's quite Constitutional.

Tenth Amendment:

The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.

The whole point of the actual Constitution was to limit what the Federal government could do as far as screwing with the people in the USA, while at the same time telling the states themselves that they had to play nice with each other. However, if an individual state decided to make their own law regarding their own citizens, that was up to them. The state still has to honor the laws of OTHER states as far as citizens of the OTHER states are concerned - such as free passage of borders - but otherwise, so long as as it wasn't forbidden in the Constitution of the individual state, they could make whatever laws they wanted. And again, if the state doesn't make it against the law, citizens are free to do whatever the hell they want.

DBActive ๐Ÿšซ

@Grey Wolf

Use of the courts by private citizens to enforce something can be considered "state action" under the Constitution. Look at the cases involving restrictive covenants in housing discrimination.

Replies:   Michael Loucks
Michael Loucks ๐Ÿšซ

@DBActive

Use of the courts by private citizens to enforce something can be considered "state action" under the Constitution. Look at the cases involving restrictive covenants in housing discrimination.

The Courts have also upheld (at least so far) the power of Congress (and State Legislatures) to allow private enforcement action of statutes.

Remus2 ๐Ÿšซ

@PotomacBob

https://constitutioncenter.org/interactive-constitution/interpretation/amendment-ix/interps/131
That link answers your question effectively.

As for the getting married part, I'm assuming your not referring to traditional marriage of men with women.
I'm personally against any government control of marriage in any manner between consenting adults. I think the only reason governments sticks their nose in to begin with is control and taxes. Unraveling that clusterfuck at this point, would damn near require another ammendment.

Replies:   PotomacBob
PotomacBob ๐Ÿšซ

@Remus2

I'm assuming your not referring to traditional marriage of men with women

To the contrary, s'far as i can see, there's nothing in the Constitution that gives Americans the right to marry, not even the traditional marriage of men with women. If it's not enumerated in the Constitution, does the right exist?

Replies:   REP  Remus2  StarFleet Carl  hst666
REP ๐Ÿšซ
Updated:

@PotomacBob

If it's not enumerated in the Constitution, does the right exist?

The citizens of America have many rights. Too many to enumerate in a document like the Constitution. So, I would say Yes.

Do you see anything specifically enumerated in the Constitution that gives you the right to breath, eat, or walk down the street? No, you don't.

Replies:   PotomacBob
PotomacBob ๐Ÿšซ

@REP

REP
4/2/2022, 11:59:17 AM
Updated: 4/2/2022, 11:59:50 AM

@PotomacBob

If it's not enumerated in the Constitution, does the right exist?

The citizens of America have many rights. Too many to enumerate in a document like the Constitution. So, I would say Yes.

Do you see anything specifically enumerated in the Constitution that gives you the right to breath, eat, or walk down the street? No, you don't.

If it is true that some rights exist that are not enumerated in the Constitution, and if it is also true that some things not enumerated are not rights; no positive assertion of the right to vote is enumerated (it does say you cannot be denied the vote for some listed reasons., i.e. if you're eighteen or if you're a woman); and even if you have the right to vote, do you have the right to have your vote counted? Do you any right to privacy at all? Could you be required to cast your ballot in public so that everybody can know how you voted? There's no "right to remain silent" enumerated in the constitution.

Replies:   Dominions Son
Dominions Son ๐Ÿšซ

@PotomacBob

here's no "right to remain silent" enumerated in the constitution.

Yes there is.

US Constitution: 5th Amendment:

No person shall be held to answer for a capital, or otherwise infamous crime, unless on a presentment or indictment of a Grand Jury, except in cases arising in the land or naval forces, or in the Militia, when in actual service in time of War or public danger; nor shall any person be subject for the same offence to be twice put in jeopardy of life or limb; nor shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself, nor be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation.

Replies:   Keet
Keet ๐Ÿšซ

@Dominions Son

when in actual service in time of War or public danger;

(bold by me) A very dangerous addition that is wide open to be abused because it depends on the interpretation of what constitutes 'public danger'.

Dominions Son ๐Ÿšซ
Updated:

@Keet

You left some very important context out.

except in cases arising in the land or naval forces, or in the Militia, when in actual service in time of War or public danger

In other words, that exception to the grand jury requirement only applies to military personnel. So even if public danger is interpreted broadly, the exception is far narrower than you were thinking.

Replies:   awnlee jawking
awnlee jawking ๐Ÿšซ

@Dominions Son

Aren't all Americans part of a militia through their right to bear arms?

AJ

Dominions Son ๐Ÿšซ
Updated:

@awnlee jawking

Aren't all Americans part of a militia through their right to bear arms?

Yes, that's why the "when in actual service" bit is important. Unless the government has called up the militia, they aren't in actual service.

Replies:   awnlee jawking
awnlee jawking ๐Ÿšซ

@Dominions Son

But isn't one of the roles of the militia is to oppose overbearing government?

AJ

Replies:   Radagast
Radagast ๐Ÿšซ

@awnlee jawking

The militia was intended to replace the Standing Army in the day to day defense of the Republic. To this day the US Army can be considered unconstitutional because it is called into service for more than two years.
State militias were to be the counterbalance to the Federal Govt. Which is why the standards for arming and training the militia could be set by the Feds but the State appointed the officers.
After the Late Unpleasantness there was no way the Feds were going to allow the States to keep their own armies and from the 14th Amendment on the Right to Bear Arms was reinterpreted as a Right for arms to self defence, rather than a right to be armed to overthrow an overbearing government. The controlled narrative of the Republicans vs the Democrats has been careful to reinforce this, concentrating on giving ground on carrying handguns while gradually restricting miltary style weapons. No new automatic weapons have been sold to the public since 1986.
SCOTUS has ruled that there is a right to own handguns, as they are commonly held by the public, but there isn't a right to 'unusual and exceptionally dangerous weapons'. Machine guns and grenades are unusual & exceptionally dangerous, so the SCOTUS decision can be interpreted as the militia technically exists, but it can't own actual militia weapons.

The constitution is just a piece of paper according to a former US President & that pretty much explains the ruling class attitude to it.

richardshagrin ๐Ÿšซ
Updated:

@awnlee jawking

right to bear arms

You don't have to wear a long sleeved shirt because you have the right to bare arms. And if there is a bear you want to carry weapons, you can arm bears.

Radagast ๐Ÿšซ

@awnlee jawking

Yes. Without looking it up, IIRC every able bodied male aged 18 to 45 is in the unorganized militia & subject to call up when required.
I see future problems with this as in recent days Trannies in Kiev have been complaining that they have been told they are men and are subject to conscription.

Paladin_HGWT ๐Ÿšซ

@Keet

That issue has been resolved for about 100 years.

Specifically, members of the "militia" most prominently the various National Guard, the Resrrves, State Guards, Naval Militia, etc. are only subject to the UCMJ while on Federal Service.

Typically, while conducting weekend drills the members of the National Guard and Reserves are not on Federal Service. Members are subject to NJP (Non Judicial Punishment) such as fines, extra duty, or reduction in rank for being AWOL, or insubordination; etc.

Some violations of law, committed on a Federal Military facility, such as a soldier shooting a superior officer, might be charged and tried under the UCMJ, rather than Federal Civil law.

Also AGR (Active Guard and Reserve) may for some offenses be charged under the UCMJ.

Finally, if Mobilized by official orders of the Governor (or similar authority for Washington DC) for a Legally Declared natural disaster or civil emergency; members of the National Guard would be subject to the UCMJ.

Understand that when a person enters a Federal military or naval facility they may be subject to the UCMJ. Typically, Federal civil law is applied. However, if you read the signs...

Keet ๐Ÿšซ

@Paladin_HGWT

@Keet

That issue has been resolved for about 100 years.

I suspected it was in some way or another but just how it is worded still sounds like it is open to be abused in the future.

Replies:   Dominions Son
Dominions Son ๐Ÿšซ

@Keet

I suspected it was in some way or another but just how it is worded still sounds like it is open to be abused in the future.

It may well be, but given that the exception is limited to those in active military service, it's not as open to abuse as you seem to think.

StarFleet Carl ๐Ÿšซ

@Paladin_HGWT

Specifically, members of the "militia" most prominently the various National Guard, the Resrrves, State Guards, Naval Militia, etc. are only subject to the UCMJ while on Federal Service.

That's partially correct. State Guards, Naval Militia, and State Air Wings are NOT subject as a group to Federal Service. The individual members COULD be called up if they are part of the actual Reserves or National Guard, but the actual state militia itself CANNOT.

Thus, for example, the Indiana Army National Guard could be Federalized. The Indiana Guard Reserve could not. (I was, for a few years, a member of the IGR.)

Michael Loucks ๐Ÿšซ

@Paladin_HGWT

Some violations of law, committed on a Federal Military facility, such as a soldier shooting a superior officer, might be charged and tried under the UCMJ, rather than Federal Civil law.

Indeed. The A-hole Seaman 1st who shot and killed my nephew, a Petty Officer, was convicted by court martial and is breaking rocks at Fort Leavenworth.

Remus2 ๐Ÿšซ

@PotomacBob

If it's not enumerated in the Constitution, does the right exist?

Which is the point of the ninth ammendment. If you had read the link I provided, you'd know that.

StarFleet Carl ๐Ÿšซ

@PotomacBob

If it's not enumerated in the Constitution, does the right exist?

You're actually reading this completely ass-backwards. The Constitution isn't to enumerate the rights we as Citizens of the United States of America have. You have the 'right' to literally do anything you want - subject to the rule of law. If you want to build your own nuclear reactor - which HAS happened - you're free to do so.

The Bill of Rights is to put limits upon the Federal Government. Those of things the government is specifically FORBIDDEN from screwing with. What the Ninth Amendment means is, literally, just because it's not forbidden for the government to screw with you as specified in previous Amendments, doesn't mean that they can just arbitrarily screw with your OTHER rights that aren't listed.

hst666 ๐Ÿšซ

@PotomacBob

This was the whole reason the some of the Founding Fathers opposed the Bill of Rights - precisely because people would think it closed list. It is not. The idea was that with respect to the federal government. men (well white, land-owning men) should be free to do what they want except for the limited obligations of maintaining a federal government. The states could legislate as they will, except in the areas where the federal government has supremacy as set forth in the Constitution.

In the beginning, the Bill of Rights was considered to only apply to the federal government, but by the end of the nineteenth century, they were deemed to apply to the states as well.

Now, should some things not need to be officially made illegal for people not to engage in them? Sure.

Replies:   Michael Loucks
Michael Loucks ๐Ÿšซ

@hst666

end of the nineteenth century, they were deemed to apply to the states as well.

Due to 'incorporation' by the 14th Amendment, but that was done piecemeal.

Remus2 ๐Ÿšซ

@PotomacBob

We hold these truths to be sacred & undeniable; that all men are created equal & independent, that from that equal creation they derive rights inherent & inalienable, among which are the preservation of life, & liberty, & the pursuit of happiness; ..

Let's not forget the wording of the Declaration of Independence.
Ammendments are just that, ammendments attempting to clarify. People need to remember the order in which the DOI, Constitution, and Ammendments were written.

Catman ๐Ÿšซ

@PotomacBob

I think our government can, and does, write laws to get around the Constitution. Freedom of Religion for example, Exodus 21:10 says (and this is not exact) if a man marries a second wife and feeds her the same, clothes her the same, and treats her the same then all is well. In the state of Oregon, they will let a person as young as 15 have a sex change but they can't get married until they are 18 which makes me ask, how in hell did they know they wanted to change their sex. Do you suppose they broke the law and tried it to reach that decision?

DBActive ๐Ÿšซ

@PotomacBob

The rights enumerated in the Constitution are only a confirmation of preexisting rights which the people held prior to the enactment of the Constitution. The 9th Amendment makes that clear.
For example, the right of free speech is not granted by the 1st Amendment: it was a right that existed prior to and independent of the Constitution.
The 9th Amendment says that all rights that existed at that time could not be taken by the Federal government whether in that list or not.

graybyrd ๐Ÿšซ

@PotomacBob

Currently in the U.S. the Constitution is honored only as it is convenient to whatever government is in power. For the common citizen there is no such thing as a 'Constitutional Right' which we somehow believe is our birthright. In fact, no one has any such right if it cannot be defended. No common citizen can afford such a defense. Only the lucky, the uncommon, those few lottery winners whose case is taken up by an advocacy group are afforded some relief from violation of their so-called 'rights.' For the rest of us, we're like the survivors in a huge herd of antelope that has not yet been taken down.

joyR ๐Ÿšซ

@PotomacBob

Does the Ninth Amendment have any meaning?

Of course not. They just threw it in for shits and giggles...

Replies:   awnlee jawking
awnlee jawking ๐Ÿšซ

@joyR

Of course not. They just threw it in for shits and giggles...

Politicos, like professors, have to be seen to be doing something, even if it's just wasting dead trees ;-)

AJ

JennaK ๐Ÿšซ

@PotomacBob

As a lawyer, the answer to your question is yes. The purpoa se of the 9th Amendment was to deal with the possibility that by listing some specific rights other rights might be lost. The 9th amendment is often cited along with other amendments such as the "Liberty" and "Due Process" clauses of the 14th amendment to protect rights such as the right to personal privacy in ones home and bedroom.

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